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Originally Posted by dheerm
Why did you only multiply by pi and not by 2pi?
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because the wheel circumference is equal to pi times the
diameter
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Also why did you divide by 2?
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because the speed of the exiting frisbee is theoretically half the speed imparted to the frisbee's circumference (assuming, as stated in the post, that there is no slipping, i.e. the frisbee is rolling along the non-motorized edge)
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(I might just be missing something but I thought linear velocity was Angular Velocity(in radians) * r?
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That's correct. Punch the numbers and you'll get the same answer.