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Re: .999~ = 1
Anyone want to help me with this one?
Find the fallacy in the following argument that 0 = 1.
dv = dx --> v = Integral (dx) = x
u = 1/x --> du = -1/(x squared) dx
0 + Integral (dx/x) = (1/x)(x) - Integral ((-1/(x squared)(x)) dx = 1 + Integral (dx/x)
So, 0 = 1
It is integration by parts ( integral (u dv) = uv - integral (v du)). I should be figuring it out myself but when I saw the problem I thought of all of you.
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