Everyone's proving stuff...
Well... 2 = 1
Why ??
Check this out... nothing illegal and you can go backwards
a = b
ab = b^2
ab - a^2 = b^2 - a^2
a(b-a) = (b-a)*(b+a)
a = b+a
So if a=1, b=1 too (since the first thing I assumed was a = b )
1 = 1+1 ???
Have fun...
Don't flame... I am putting this to have some fun
