|
Re: Calculus Query
grr math things like this frusterate my simple mind. I am no math person and i don't entirely understand why my solution is wrong. Maybie i am just stubborn. Lets define the inverse of a function as a being a function where f(x)=y and f^-1(y)=x for all x. By this logic if f(0)=0 then shouldn't f^-1(0) be 0 as well and shouldn't my solution work?
__________________
1139 Alumni
|