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#1
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
I think so. Possession is pretty tightly defined, and scoring a goal could potentially happen by chance (bounce in from a truss shot, for example) or by accident (opposing team bumps the ball into the low goal). Thus, it could happen that an alliance partner bumps the ball once (not possession) and scores off the deflection. Think soccer.
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#2
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
I would think the if the intent to score the ball was there, it would be a possession. An accidental deflection wouldn't be. It would be a judgment call by the referees.
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#3
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
Every shove into the low goal that I've seen has either been a trap or a herd, which both constitute as possession.
Could you cite a rule on that... |
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#4
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
G12 and the glossary is where possession is defined. Herding is defined as multiple hits. Bulldozing (one hit while traveling to A to B) is not a possession. So one hit with the intention to put the ball in the goal is not really defined since it is not bulldozing or herding. Deflection is defined as not a possession.
So no I cannot site a rule where this is clearly defined hence it is the referee's interpretation of the rule of possession. In terms of the game. This is an area that should be thoroughly covered in the driver's meeting so your drivers know how what counts as possession both in terms of scoring & avoiding penalties. Last edited by FrankJ : 11-03-2014 at 12:05. |
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#5
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
Another example:
Match 61 - Kettering District The last Cycle which included 3 assist for the Blue Alliance was removed from the score after the match (31 points) because the refs claimed that a blue robot did not possess the ball when the ball went into the goal. However, there was no trapping or possession called on the Red Alliance for this action either. http://youtu.be/_0DL5Tp-1GM?t=1m15s Thoughts? -Clinton- |
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#6
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
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Based on my reading of the definition of SCORE it appears to be a perfectly legal goal. No where in the definition does it say the ball needs to be directly proceeded by a possession. (If they wanted it read that way they would state it just like they say CATCH points are awarded only if directly preceded by a TRUSS SCORE. A BALL is considered SCORED in an ALLIANCE’S GOAL if A. a ROBOT causes one (1) of their ALLIANCE’S BALLS to cross completely and remain completely through the opening(s) of one (1) of their ALLIANCE’S GOALS without intervening TEAM member contact, it appears from the video the blue robot pushed the red bot into the ball through the goal. Thus they caused it to cross into the goal B. the ALLIANCE ROBOT last in contact with the BALL was entirely between the TRUSS and their ALLIANCE’S HIGH GOALS, and The last blue robot in contact with the ball was clearly in the blue zone C. the BALL is not in contact with any ROBOT from that ALLIANCE. The ball passed completely through the goal and was not touching a blue robot Really the only thing that could be argued is that it didn't meet (A) but I believe that it did. |
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#7
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
The question is not about scoring the goal. It is about possession before the goal. The possession gives you additional points.
In the Arkansas regional F3 blue was apparently called for possession of red ball by bulldozing (or herding) it into the blue goal at the end of the match. <http://www.chiefdelphi.com/forums/showthread.php?t=119689&page=8> about post 112 forward. |
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#8
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
You're right that was the original question. I was quoting and answering Clinton Bolinger's question which was slightly off topic, but related as well. I guess I could have started a new thread to answer it but it seemed on topic enough to answer it here.
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#9
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
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#10
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
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I am byass but I believe that the assist points and goal should have counted. However, the refs called it differently. The match should have probably been replayed because the pedestal turned on and started a new cycle. Instead of returning the ball to the nearest human player and keeping the assist on the board. I do think that FIRST needs to clarify these types of situations in the rules/updates. Most field reset/refs don't know how to properly handle these types of situations. If a ball is possessed by an Alliance Robot in the area between the Truss and their High Goal. Then makes it into one of the Goals, the ball should count as scored. This makes it easier on the Refs and the spectators. -Clinton- |
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#11
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
The last robot in contact with the ball before it entered the goal was not a member of the blue alliance, so the ball does not meet the criteria for being scored.
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#12
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
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#13
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
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Otherwise, goalie blocked shots would not count either. Section 3.1.4 Scoring An opponent ROBOT that contacts, but fails to stop a BALL from going over the TRUSS or in a GOAL has not caused either of these actions and does not invalidate the SCORE. -Clinton- |
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#14
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
Where in the rules does it say that?
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#15
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Re: Is it possible to score a ball without POSSESSing it?
My apologies. I was quite certain that an alliance robot had to be the last thing to contact the ball before it went over the truss or through the goal in order for it to count, but obviously I was mistaken. I think I misread (or misremembered) the bit about "does not invalidate the SCORE" as being the opposite of what it says. The "without intervening TEAM member contact" probably got mixed up with it in my head as referring to robots rather than humans.
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