.999~ = 1

[Dejhan_Tulip]

Everyone's proving stuff...
Well... 2 = 1
Why ??

Check this out... nothing illegal and you can go backwards

a = b
ab = b^2
ab - a^2 = b^2 - a^2
a(b-a) = (b-a)*(b+a)
a = b+a

So if a=1, b=1 too (since the first thing I assumed was a = b )

1 = 1+1 ???

Have fun...
Don't flame... I am putting this to have some fun

[Greg Ross]

Nothing's illegal, eh? To get from

a(b-a) = (b-a)*(b+a)

to

a = b+a

you have to divide by (b-a) which is zero! Which is the DEFINITION of illegal!

[deltacoder1020]

Originally Posted by gwross

Nothing's illegal, eh? To get from

to

you have to divide by (b-a) which is zero! Which is the DEFINITION of illegal!

yep. oldest trick in the false-proof book. second oldest is trying to argue that x^2 = y^2 implies that x = y.